Are you aspiring to join the Ghana Civil Service? Cracking the competitive online exam is the first step towards a fulfilling career in public service. This blog post provides valuable insights into the exam format, common question types, and effective preparation strategies. We’ll also share some sample questions to help you familiarize yourself with the exam pattern.

Understanding the Ghana Civil Service Exam

The Ghana Civil Service exam is designed to assess candidates’ cognitive abilities, general knowledge, and aptitude for public service. The exam typically comprises multiple-choice questions covering various sections such as:

Sample Questions

Work Completion Time

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It takes 12 people 15 hours to complete a certain job. How many hours would it take 18 people, working at the same rate to complete 2/5 of the same job? 1 Mark(s) (A) 3 1/2 (8) 4 (0)9 (0) 16 1/2 (6) 22 1/2

 

To solve this problem, follow these steps:

1. Calculate the total work in person-hours:
   • 12 people take 15 hours to complete the job. Therefore, the total work required for the job is 12 people×15 hours=180 person-hours12 \text{ people} \times 15 \text{ hours} = 180 \text{ person-hours}12 people×15 hours=180 person-hours.
2. Find the work required for 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the job:
   • The work needed for 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the job is 25×180 person-hours=72 person-hours\frac{2}{5} \times 180 \text{ person-hours} = 72 \text{ person-hours}52​×180 person-hours=72 person-hours.
3. Calculate the time required for 18 people to complete this work:
   • Let ttt be the time required for 18 people to complete 72 person-hours of work. Since work equals the number of people times the time, we have: 18 people×t hours=72 person-hours18 \text{ people} \times t \text{ hours} = 72 \text{ person-hours}18 people×t hours=72 person-hours
   • Solving for ttt: t=7218=4 hourst = \frac{72}{18} = 4 \text{ hours}t=1872​=4 hours

Thus, it would take 18 people 4 hours to complete 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the job.

The correct answer is 4.

Each of the 576 houses in KOAKsVille is owned by one of the following landlords: Matt, Gavin, Angela, or Susan. Matt and Angela together own twice as many houses as Gavin and Susan own. If Gavin owns 100 more houses than Susan owns, and Matt owns 100 more houses than Angela owns, how many houses does Susan own? 1Mark(s) (A) 46 (8) 142 (0) 146 (0) 192 (E) 242

 

To solve this problem, let’s define the number of houses owned by each landlord with variables:

• Let MMM be the number of houses owned by Matt.
• Let GGG be the number of houses owned by Gavin.
• Let AAA be the number of houses owned by Angela.
• Let SSS be the number of houses owned by Susan.

We are given the following conditions:

1. Matt and Angela together own twice as many houses as Gavin and Susan combined: M+A=2(G+S)M + A = 2(G + S)M+A=2(G+S)
2. Gavin owns 100 more houses than Susan: G=S+100G = S + 100G=S+100
3. Matt owns 100 more houses than Angela: M=A+100M = A + 100M=A+100
4. The total number of houses is 576: M+G+A+S=576M + G + A + S = 576M+G+A+S=576

We will use these equations to find SSS.

First, substitute GGG and MMM from equations (2) and (3) into the total houses equation:

M=A+100M = A + 100M=A+100 G=S+100G = S + 100G=S+100

So:

(A+100)+(S+100)+A+S=576(A + 100) + (S + 100) + A + S = 576(A+100)+(S+100)+A+S=576

Simplify and solve for AAA and SSS:

A+100+S+100+A+S=576A + 100 + S + 100 + A + S = 576A+100+S+100+A+S=576 2A+2S+200=5762A + 2S + 200 = 5762A+2S+200=576 2A+2S=3762A + 2S = 3762A+2S=376 A+S=188A + S = 188A+S=188

Next, use the equation M+A=2(G+S)M + A = 2(G + S)M+A=2(G+S):

(A+100)+A=2((S+100)+S)(A + 100) + A = 2((S + 100) + S)(A+100)+A=2((S+100)+S) 2A+100=2(2S+100)2A + 100 = 2(2S + 100)2A+100=2(2S+100) 2A+100=4S+2002A + 100 = 4S + 2002A+100=4S+200 2A=4S+1002A = 4S + 1002A=4S+100 A=2S+50A = 2S + 50A=2S+50

Substitute A=2S+50A = 2S + 50A=2S+50 into A+S=188A + S = 188A+S=188:

(2S+50)+S=188(2S + 50) + S = 188(2S+50)+S=188 3S+50=1883S + 50 = 1883S+50=188 3S=1383S = 1383S=138 S=46S = 46S=46

So, Susan owns 46\boxed{46}46​ houses.

What is the role of an Assistant Technical Enrollment Officer? 1Mark(s) (A) To manage applicants at a Registration Centre (8) To capture applicant ‘s personal information, print and issue National ID cards (C) To administer oaths (D) To manage Regist ration Centre queues

 

The role of an Assistant Technical Enrollment Officer typically involves:

• Capturing applicants’ personal information
• Printing and issuing identification cards, such as National ID cards

Based on this description, the correct answer is:

(B) To capture applicant’s personal information, print and issue National ID cards

Channel 6 advertises that it has the most local news reporting in the city. Assuming that this claim is true, it is obvious that someone who wants to learn as much as possible about the day’s news should watch Channel 6. Which of the following statements would most effectively weaken the above argument? 1 Mark(s) A The city only has two stations that present any news broadcasts 8 Channel 6 broadcasts more sporting events and comedies than any other station in C No other channel claims to broadcast as much news as Channel 6 does D Not everyone in the city cares about watching the news E Channel 6’s claim is based only on the number of times the news is broadcast, including repeats of the same news reports

 

The argument in the statement is that Channel 6’s claim of having the most local news reporting makes it the best option for someone who wants to learn as much as possible about the day’s news.

To effectively weaken this argument, you need to challenge the basis on which Channel 6 makes its claim or its actual value to viewers seeking comprehensive news coverage.

The most effective way to weaken this argument would be to point out that the claim of “most local news reporting” might not translate to the most valuable or diverse news content. Specifically, if Channel 6’s claim is based on the number of broadcasts rather than the quality or variety of news, then the argument loses strength.

So, the statement that would most effectively weaken the argument is:

(E) Channel 6’s claim is based only on the number of times the news is broadcast, including repeats of the same news reports.

Which of the questions on the Registration Application Form is not mandatory? (A) Appl icant’s Full name (B) Details of Applicants Next of Kin (C) Applicant’s Residential Address (D) None of the above

 

In most registration application forms, the mandatory fields usually include:

• Applicant’s Full Name (A)
• Applicant’s Residential Address (C)

Details of Applicant’s Next of Kin (B) are often considered supplementary information rather than essential, depending on the purpose of the registration.

Therefore, the question that is typically not mandatory is:

(B) Details of Applicant’s Next of Kin

12-year-old Everard is three times as old as his brother Rashid. How old will Everard be when he is twice as old as Rashid? (A) 14 years (B) 16 year s (C) 18 years (D) 20 years

 

Let’s solve the problem step by step:

1. Determine Rashid’s current age:
   • Everard is 12 years old and is three times as old as Rashid.
   • Let Rashid’s age be xxx.
   • Therefore, 12=3×12 = 3×12=3x.
   • Solving for xxx: x=123=4x = \frac{12}{3} = 4x=312​=4
   • So, Rashid is currently 4 years old.
2. Set up the condition for when Everard will be twice as old as Rashid:
   • Let yyy be the number of years into the future when Everard will be twice as old as Rashid.
   • At that time, Everard will be 12+y12 + y12+y years old.
   • Rashid will be 4+y4 + y4+y years old.
   • We want Everard to be twice as old as Rashid: 12+y=2×(4+y)12 + y = 2 \times (4 + y)12+y=2×(4+y)
   • Solve the equation: 12+y=8+2y12 + y = 8 + 2y12+y=8+2y 12−8=2y−y12 – 8 = 2y – y12−8=2y−y 4=y4 = y4=y
3. Calculate Everard’s age when this condition is met:
   • Everard’s age will be 12+4=1612 + 4 = 1612+4=16 years.

Thus, Everard will be 16 years old when he is twice as old as Rashid. The correct answer is:

(B) 16 years

There are five houses in Satellite Road, which belong to Mr. and Mrs. Donkoh, Miss Ofori, Mrs. Frimpong, Mr. Agyeman, and Mr. and Mrs. Boadu. The Boadus’ and Donkohs’ houses have green curtains. The other houses have white ones. The Donkohs and Mrs. Frimpong have their window frames painted the same colour as their doors. Miss Ofori has black window frames. Mr. Agyeman’s and the Boadus’ have green ones. The doors of the houses are white apart for Miss Ofori’ and Mr. Agyeman’s which are black. Who has window frames and door painted white, but green curtains? 1Mark(s) (A) Mr and Mrs. Donkoh (B) Miss 0fond (C)Mrs. Frimpong (D) Mr Agyeman (E)Mr and Mrs. Boadu

 

To determine who has window frames and doors painted white, but green curtains, let’s analyze the information given:

1. Curtains:
   • The Boadus’ and Donkohs’ houses have green curtains.
   • The other houses (Miss Ofori, Mrs. Frimpong, and Mr. Agyeman) have white curtains.
2. Window Frames and Doors:
   • The Donkohs and Mrs. Frimpong have window frames painted the same color as their doors.
   • Miss Ofori has black window frames.
   • Mr. Agyeman’s and the Boadus’ window frames are green.
   • The doors of Miss Ofori’s and Mr. Agyeman’s houses are black.
   • The remaining houses (which are not Miss Ofori’s or Mr. Agyeman’s) have white doors.
3. Determine the properties:
   • Mr. and Mrs. Donkoh: Green curtains. Since the Donkohs’ window frames and doors are the same color, and the curtains are green, the window frames and doors must be green, not white.
   • Miss Ofori: Black window frames and black door. Curtains are white.
   • Mrs. Frimpong: The curtains are white. Mrs. Frimpong’s window frames and doors are the same color. Since the curtains are white, the window frames and doors are also white.
   • Mr. Agyeman: Black door and green window frames. Curtains are white.
   • Mr. and Mrs. Boadu: Green curtains and green window frames. The door color isn’t specified, but since the curtains and window frames are green, the door isn’t white.

Conclusion: The person with window frames and a door painted white, but with green curtains, is Mrs. Frimpong.

So, the correct answer is:

(C) Mrs. Frimpong

Ethics Committee member: ‘This person was the proctor at the exam during which the two students were caught allegedly cheating. Yet she claims to recognize the student who was giving the answers but not the student who was getting the answers. Therefore, the proctor’s testimony should be excluded.’ Proposed Assumption: If a proctor claims to recognize both parties involved in cheating, then the proctor’s testimony should be included. 1Mark(s) (A) Assumption Made (B) Somewhat false (C) Assumption Partially made (D) Assumption Not Made (E) None of the abov e

 

To evaluate the validity of the proposed assumption based on the statement given:

Ethics Committee member’s statement: “This person was the proctor at the exam during which the two students were caught allegedly cheating. Yet she claims to recognize the student who was giving the answers but not the student who was getting the answers. Therefore, the proctor’s testimony should be excluded.”

Proposed Assumption: “If a proctor claims to recognize both parties involved in cheating, then the proctor’s testimony should be included.”

Analysis:

• The committee member argues that because the proctor only recognizes one of the involved students (the one giving answers) and not the other (the one receiving answers), the testimony should be excluded.
• The proposed assumption suggests that if the proctor recognized both students, then their testimony should be included.

The proposed assumption implies a condition for including testimony, which contrasts with the reason given for excluding it. The assumption is directly related to the argument about the need for recognition of both parties for the testimony to be valid.

Conclusion: The proposed assumption is made in the argument because it establishes a condition under which the proctor’s testimony should be considered valid (recognizing both parties).

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(A) Assumption Made

All students in public schools are guaranteed the right to a free and appropriate education. For children with various physical challenges or handicaps, determining what kind of education is appropriate can often lead to litigation between the parents of the child and the school district. Requiring parents to pay for these litigation costs would undermine the requirement that the appropriate education be provided for free. Therefore, the public school district should be required to pay all litigation costs whenever parents of handicapped children challenge the education being provided. Which of the following statements, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument? 1 Mark(s) A. Parents of handicapped children often have many other additional expenses , including higher levels of health-care and medical equipment that they need to pay B Over the past five years, 75 percent of all the challenges raised in courts by parents of handicapped children have been decided in favor of the school districts C Public school districts employ child psychologists whose job is to study and evaluate the children with spec ial educational needs D School districts already spend at least one quarter of the annual budget to provide additional educational tools and equipment for handicapped children E School principals and other administrators are charged with the task of overseeing the progress of all of the students in their schools to help identify those with specia l educational needs

 

To weaken the argument that the public school district should be required to pay all litigation costs when parents of handicapped children challenge the education provided, you need to provide information that undermines the assumption that the current requirement to pay litigation costs would be unjust or counterproductive.

Argument Recap: The argument is that requiring parents to pay litigation costs would undermine the requirement for free and appropriate education, so the school district should cover these costs.

To weaken this argument, the statement should show that the proposed change might not be necessary or that the current system is working well.

Here’s an evaluation of each option:

• A. Parents of handicapped children often have many other additional expenses, including higher levels of health-care and medical equipment that they need to pay.
  • This statement reinforces the financial burden on parents but doesn’t address the specific issue of litigation costs and whether the school district should cover them.
• B. Over the past five years, 75 percent of all the challenges raised in courts by parents of handicapped children have been decided in favor of the school districts.
  • This statement weakens the argument by suggesting that most legal challenges favor the school districts, implying that the litigation may not be as burdensome to the districts as assumed.
• C. Public school districts employ child psychologists whose job is to study and evaluate the children with special educational needs.
  • This is relevant to the appropriateness of education but doesn’t directly address the issue of litigation costs.
• D. School districts already spend at least one quarter of the annual budget to provide additional educational tools and equipment for handicapped children.
  • This statement shows that districts are already investing significantly in supporting handicapped children but doesn’t directly weaken the argument about litigation costs.
• E. School principals and other administrators are charged with the task of overseeing the progress of all of the students in their schools to help identify those with special educational needs.
  • This statement addresses the oversight and monitoring of students but doesn’t weaken the argument about litigation costs.

Conclusion: The most relevant statement that weakens the argument by suggesting that litigation challenges are typically decided in favor of the school districts is:

(B) Over the past five years, 75 percent of all the challenges raised in courts by parents of handicapped children have been decided in favor of the school districts.

Apart from the fingerprints what else can be biometrically used to verify that a Ghana Card belongs to an applicant? A. Signature B ICAO C Height D.Iris

 

Apart from fingerprints, biometric verification methods that can be used to verify an identity typically include:

• Iris Recognition: This involves scanning the unique patterns in the iris of the eye. It is a highly reliable biometric method used for identity verification.

Given the options provided:

• A. Signature: While signatures can be used for authentication, they are not considered a biometric method in the same way that fingerprints and iris recognition are.
• B. ICAO: This refers to the International Civil Aviation Organization, which sets standards for travel documents, not a biometric method.
• C. Height: Height is a physical measurement, not a biometric characteristic used for verification.
• D. Iris: Iris recognition is a biometric method that can be used for identity verification.

So, the correct answer is:

1. Iris

Which word among the following is the odd one? (A) sourdough (B) loaf (C) pumpernicke l (0) rye (E) focaccia

 

To identify the odd one among the words provided, consider that most of them are types of bread or related to bread. Here’s the breakdown:

• (A) Sourdough: A type of bread made with a sourdough starter.
• (B) Loaf: A general term for a shape or form of bread, but not a specific type.
• (C) Pumpernickel: A type of bread made from coarsely ground rye flour.
• (D) Rye: A type of flour used to make bread, such as rye bread.
• (E) Focaccia: A type of Italian flatbread.

Among these options, “loaf” is the odd one because it refers to the shape or form of bread rather than a specific type of bread.

So, the correct answer is:

(B) Loaf

A researcher discovered that people who have low levels of immune-system activity tend to score much lower on tests of mental health than people with normal or high immune-system activity. The researcher concluded from this experiment that the immune system protects against mental illness as well as against physical disease. The researcher’s conclusion depends on which of the following assumptions? 1Mark(s) A. High immune-system activity protects against mental illness better than normal immune-system activity B Mental illness is similar to physical disease in its effects on body systems does c people with high immune-system activity cannot develop mental illness D. Mental illness does not cause peoples immune-system activity to decrease E psychological treatment of mental illness is not as effective as is medical treatment

 

The researcher’s conclusion that the immune system protects against mental illness as well as physical disease is based on the assumption that the relationship between low immune-system activity and lower mental health scores is not due to the mental illness causing changes in immune-system activity.

Here’s an evaluation of the assumptions:

• A. High immune-system activity protects against mental illness better than normal immune-system activity
  • This statement is not necessarily related to the conclusion; it discusses relative effectiveness but doesn’t address the causal relationship.
• B. Mental illness is similar to physical disease in its effects on body systems
  • This does not address the core assumption needed for the conclusion about immune system protection.
• C. People with high immune-system activity cannot develop mental illness
  • This is not necessary for the conclusion. The conclusion doesn’t depend on people with high immune-system activity being immune to mental illness.
• D. Mental illness does not cause people’s immune-system activity to decrease
  • This is crucial because if mental illness were causing a decrease in immune-system activity, it would not support the conclusion that the immune system protects against mental illness. The researcher needs to assume that mental illness itself does not alter immune-system activity to make a causal link.
• E. Psychological treatment of mental illness is not as effective as medical treatment
  • This is not directly related to the assumption about immune-system activity and mental health.

Conclusion: The assumption that most directly supports the researcher’s conclusion is:

(D) Mental illness does not cause people’s immune-system activity to decrease

A report from the head of the school department reveals that the school department had a large surplus in its health insurance account at the end of 2014. The same report showed that at the end of 2015, the school department suffered a deficit of GHC300, 000.00 in the same account. Despite this decline, the school department reported no significant changes in costs over the two-year period that was studied. What can be concluded from the results of this report? 1Mark(s) (A) The school department’s budget for health costs is excessively high (8) More teachers were provided with health insurance payments during 2015 than in 2014 (C) The costs that are related to operating the school department’s health insurance (D) The health insurance account received less funding in 2015 than it did in 2014 program must have increased dramatic ally from 2014 t0 2015 (E) The health insurance budget will show an even greater deficit in 2016 than it did in 2015

 

Given the information from the report:

• The school department had a large surplus in its health insurance account at the end of 2014.
• By the end of 2015, there was a deficit of GHC300,000.00 in the same account.
• There were no significant changes in costs reported over the two-year period.

Analysis of Possible Conclusions:

• (A) The school department’s budget for health costs is excessively high
  • The report does not provide information about whether the budget was excessively high; it only shows a deficit and surplus over time.
• (B) More teachers were provided with health insurance payments during 2015 than in 2014
  • While a deficit in 2015 suggests increased expenditures, the report does not explicitly state that more teachers were covered, so this conclusion is not directly supported.
• (C) The costs that are related to operating the school department’s health insurance program must have increased dramatically from 2014 to 2015
  • The report states no significant changes in costs, so this conclusion is inconsistent with the given information.
• (D) The health insurance account received less funding in 2015 than it did in 2014
  • The deficit suggests that the account might have had less funding or higher expenses not covered by the available funds. This is a plausible conclusion based on the account’s surplus turning into a deficit without significant cost changes.
• (E) The health insurance budget will show an even greater deficit in 2016 than it did in 2015
  • This is speculative and cannot be concluded from the information provided, as future deficits are not indicated by past data alone.

Conclusion: The most reasonable conclusion from the report is:

(D) The health insurance account received less funding in 2015 than it did in 2014

A is 3 years older to Band 3 years younger to C, while Band Dare twins. How many years older is C to D? (A) 2 (8) 3 (0) 6 (0) 12

 

Let’s break down the information provided:

1. A is 3 years older than B: A=B+3A = B + 3A=B+3
2. A is 3 years younger than C: A=C−3A = C – 3A=C−3
3. B and D are twins: B=DB = DB=D

To find out how many years older C is compared to D:

1. Substitute B=DB = DB=D into the equation for A:
   • Since A=B+3A = B + 3A=B+3 and B=DB = DB=D, we have A=D+3A = D + 3A=D+3.
2. Use the equation A=C−3A = C – 3A=C−3 to express C in terms of A:
   • C=A+3C = A + 3C=A+3
3. Substitute A=D+3A = D + 3A=D+3 into C=A+3C = A + 3C=A+3:
   • C=(D+3)+3C = (D + 3) + 3C=(D+3)+3
   • C=D+6C = D + 6C=D+6

Thus, C is 6 years older than D.

So, the correct answer is:

(C) 6

If the Silver Flyer, a train going to Chicago, leaves Philadelphia on time, then it will arrive in Chicago on time. If the train arrives in Chicago on time, then it always arrives in Los Angeles on time. Last Tuesday, the Silver Flyer arrived late in Chicago. Which of the following is a valid conclusion based on the above statements? 1Mark(s) A The Silver Flyer did not leave Philadelphia on time B The Silver Flyer was late leaving Chicago on its way to Los Angeles C The Silver Flyer arrived in Los Angeles on time p The Silver Flyer arrived late in Los Angeles E The Silver Flyer had mechanical problems during the trip from Philadelphia to Chicago

 

Based on the statements:

1. If the Silver Flyer leaves Philadelphia on time, it will arrive in Chicago on time.
2. If the Silver Flyer arrives in Chicago on time, it always arrives in Los Angeles on time.
3. The Silver Flyer arrived late in Chicago last Tuesday.

We need to determine the valid conclusion:

• From the first statement, if the Silver Flyer was on time in Philadelphia, it should have been on time in Chicago.
• Since the train was late in Chicago, it implies that the condition for being on time in Chicago was not met.

This means the Silver Flyer did not leave Philadelphia on time. If it had left on time, it would have arrived on time in Chicago, which did not happen.

Valid Conclusion:

(A) The Silver Flyer did not leave Philadelphia on time

About seven hundred and fifty (750) marketing professionals attended this year’s Media Innovations Forum. This indicates that social media engagement is a substantial feature of brand marketing plans. Proposed Assumption: The extent of attendance in Service professional media forums is not negligible. 1 Mark(s) (A) Assumption Made (8) Assumption Not Made (C) Assumption Partially made (D) Somewhat false (E) None of the above

 

To determine whether the proposed assumption is made by the statement, let’s evaluate the relationship between the given information and the assumption:

• Statement: About 750 marketing professionals attended this year’s Media Innovations Forum, indicating that social media engagement is a substantial feature of brand marketing plans.
• Proposed Assumption: The extent of attendance in service professional media forums is not negligible.

The statement suggests that the large attendance at the Media Innovations Forum indicates the importance of social media in brand marketing. This implies that attendance at such forums is significant and reflects the relevance of the forum topics, which supports the assumption that attendance in professional media forums is not negligible.

Conclusion:

The proposed assumption is indeed supported by the statement because it implies that the attendance at the forum is substantial and reflects the importance of the topics discussed.

Therefore, the correct option is:

(A) Assumption Made

For an applicant who has no Birth Certificate or a valid passport, which of the following will best be used as a verification document? 1 Mark(s) (A) Oath of Identity Form (B) Voter ID Card (C)TIN (D) None of the above

 

For an applicant without a birth certificate or valid passport, the Voter ID Card would typically be the best alternative verification document. It is widely accepted as proof of identity and citizenship in many places.

So, the correct option is:

(B) Voter ID Card

Brand X disinfectant spray claims to be the best spray available because it kills germs faster than Brand Y and because it does not leave a soapy fllm the way Brand Y does. If Brand X’s claim is true, them which of the following can properly be concluded? 1 Mark(s) A. Brand Y must be cheaper than Brand X 8. Brand X sell more bottles than Brand Y c Brand Y is better than any of the other competing brand that were not mentioned in the argument D Brand X and Y combined sell more bottles than all other brands combined E. Killing germs is important to preventing colds and other illnesses

 

Given Brand X’s claims:

• Brand X kills germs faster than Brand Y.
• Brand X does not leave a soapy film like Brand Y.

If Brand X’s claims are true, the conclusion should be directly related to these claims.

Let’s evaluate the options:

• A. Brand Y must be cheaper than Brand X
  • The price of Brand Y relative to Brand X is not mentioned or implied by the claims. Price is not related to the claims about effectiveness or residue.
• B. Brand X sells more bottles than Brand Y
  • The sales volume of Brand X compared to Brand Y is not addressed in the claims.
• C. Brand Y is better than any of the other competing brands that were not mentioned in the argument
  • There is no information provided about other competing brands, so this cannot be concluded.
• D. Brand X and Y combined sell more bottles than all other brands combined
  • The claims do not provide information about the sales volumes of Brand X, Brand Y, or other brands.
• E. Killing germs is important to preventing colds and other illnesses
  • Although the argument emphasizes the effectiveness of Brand X in killing germs, it does not directly address the importance of killing germs for preventing illness.

Conclusion:

None of the options directly follow from the information given. However, the closest conclusion related to the claims about effectiveness and not leaving a soapy film would be the recognition of the effectiveness of killing germs. While the argument does not explicitly address the importance of killing germs to preventing illness, it does imply that effectiveness in killing germs is a key feature.

Thus, based on the information provided, none of the options perfectly match the conclusions that can be derived from the given claims. If forced to select the closest, option E aligns most closely with the implied benefit of the product, though it’s not directly concluded from the given argument.

Correct Answer:

(E) Killing germs is important to preventing colds and other illnesses

You are working as a graduate trainee in an electronics company and are currently part of an international project team looking at new routes to market. During a conference call you are finding it difficult to understand what one of your colleagues is saying. She is a graduate trainee like you and you have met her a few times during a couple of conferences you both attended and you got on well. Her accent is very strong and she has a tendency to speak very quickly when she is nervous. She is one of a number of people dialing in from outside of the UK. You are in a meeting room with the project lead and a couple of other colleagues. You can see that your colleagues are also finding it difficult to understand her. What would you do? 1 Mark(s) (A)Mention your concerns to the project lead after the call, offering to speak to your colleague if the project lead would hike you to, explaining that you have a working relationship with her (8) After the call acknowledge your concerns to the others in the room and suggest that you all compare notes to make sure you have a shared understanding of what she was actually saying (C) When your colleague is no longer speaking. send her an instant message explaining that she may benefi t from slowing down a little as there are a few people (0) Call your colleague afterwards and ask how she is finding the project and tactfully mention that at times you found it difficult to understand what she was saying, politely suggesting that just slowing down a little would help who are finding it difficult to understand her in the room where you are

 

In this situation, the goal is to address the communication issue respectfully and effectively, ensuring that both you and your colleagues can understand the speaker. Here’s a breakdown of the options:

• (A) Mention your concerns to the project lead after the call, offering to speak to your colleague if the project lead would like you to, explaining that you have a working relationship with her.
  • This option is proactive and shows initiative. It ensures that the issue is addressed through proper channels while offering a personal touch since you have a working relationship with your colleague.
• (B) After the call, acknowledge your concerns to the others in the room and suggest that you all compare notes to make sure you have a shared understanding of what she was actually saying.
  • This option helps ensure that your team is on the same page, but it does not directly address the communication issue with the colleague who is speaking quickly.
• (C) When your colleague is no longer speaking, send her an instant message explaining that she may benefit from slowing down a little as there are a few people who are finding it difficult to understand her in the room where you are.
  • While this option is direct and addresses the problem immediately, it might come across as abrupt if not handled carefully. Instant messaging during a call could be seen as impolite.
• (D) Call your colleague afterwards and ask how she is finding the project and tactfully mention that at times you found it difficult to understand what she was saying, politely suggesting that just slowing down a little would help.
  • This option allows for a private and considerate conversation with your colleague. It addresses the issue personally and sensitively.

Best Approach:

(A) is the most balanced approach. It involves addressing the issue through the project lead while also offering to handle the situation personally, leveraging your existing rapport with your colleague. This method ensures that the issue is formally noted and handled appropriately, while also showing your willingness to help resolve it directly.

Only residents of Mountain City may be members of the City Zoning Board. Kevin is not a member of the City Zoning Board, so he must not be a resident of Mountain City. Which of the following statements is a hidden assumption in the above argument? 1 Mark(s) A. Kevin did not want to become a member of the City Zoning Board 8 All residents of Mountain City automatically become members of the City Zoning many people cannot afford C.The City Zoning Board requires a significant time commitment that D Kevin would like to be the on City Zoning Board E Mountain City is considered a desirable place to live

 

The argument is that since only residents of Mountain City can be members of the City Zoning Board and Kevin is not a member, it follows that Kevin must not be a resident of Mountain City. The hidden assumption here is the implicit link between not being a member and not being a resident.

To identify the hidden assumption, let’s evaluate the options:

• A. Kevin did not want to become a member of the City Zoning Board
  • This is not directly related to the argument. The argument does not concern Kevin’s desire to join the board but his residency status.
• B. All residents of Mountain City automatically become members of the City Zoning Board
  • This assumption would support the argument but is not stated. It implies that membership is automatic, which would make the argument valid if Kevin is not a member.
• C. The City Zoning Board requires a significant time commitment
  • This is not relevant to the argument about residency and membership.
• D. Kevin would like to be a member of the City Zoning Board
  • The argument does not address Kevin’s desire to join the board, only his membership status and residency.
• E. Mountain City is considered a desirable place to live
  • This is unrelated to the argument about membership and residency.

Conclusion:

The hidden assumption is that B, “All residents of Mountain City automatically become members of the City Zoning Board,” underlies the argument. It assumes that if Kevin were a resident of Mountain City, he would automatically be a member of the board, which supports the conclusion that his lack of membership implies he is not a resident.

So, the correct option is:

(B) All residents of Mountain City automatically become members of the City Zoning Board

For an applicant who has no Birth Certificate or a valid passport, which of the following will best be used as a verification document? 1 Mark(s) (A) Oath of Identity Form (B) Voter ID Card (C) TIN (D) None of the above

 

For an applicant who does not have a Birth Certificate or a valid passport, the Voter ID Card would be the best alternative verification document among the options provided.

Here’s why:

• (A) Oath of Identity Form: This form is typically used to affirm an individual’s identity but may not always be accepted as a primary document for verification.
• (B) Voter ID Card: This is a government-issued identification card that can serve as a valid form of verification of identity.
• (C) TIN: While a Tax Identification Number is important for tax purposes, it is not typically used as a primary document for verifying identity.
• (D) None of the above: This option is not necessary as the Voter ID Card is a valid alternative.

So, the correct answer is:

(B) Voter ID Card

An invasion of alien attackers is attempting to take control of the world. If the attackers can take control of Asia, they will then also control Europe. If they can control Europe, they will control Africa. They will not get control of South America unless they first control both Asia and Africa. If they control Asia, Africa, and South America, they will control North America. According to the above argument, which of the following statements can be concluded if the attackers control both Asia and Africa? 1 Mark(s) (A) The attackers also control South America (8) The attackers also control North America control (C) The attackers also Europe (D) The attackers do not control South America (E)The attackers do not control North America

 

Based on the given conditions, let’s analyze the statements to determine what can be concluded if the attackers control both Asia and Africa:

1. If the attackers can take control of Asia, they will then also control Europe.
2. If they can control Europe, they will control Africa.
3. They will not get control of South America unless they first control both Asia and Africa.
4. If they control Asia, Africa, and South America, they will control North America.

We are given that the attackers control both Asia and Africa.

Here’s the analysis:

1. Since the attackers control Asia, they will also control Europe (from statement 1).
2. Since they control Europe and Europe implies control of Africa (from statement 2), this is consistent with them controlling Africa (already given).
3. If they control both Asia and Africa, they meet the condition required to control South America (statement 3), so they will control South America.
4. If they control Asia, Africa, and South America, they will control North America (statement 4). Since they are controlling both Asia and Africa, and now South America is controlled, they will control North America as well.

Conclusion:

Since they control Asia and Africa, and they will control South America because they meet the requirement for it. Also, controlling Asia, Africa, and South America means they will control North America.

Thus, the valid conclusions are:

• The attackers also control South America.
• The attackers also control North America.

Among the options provided:

(A) The attackers also control South America is directly supported by the given conditions.

(B) The attackers also control North America is also supported, but since we need to choose the option that directly follows from the immediate condition of controlling Asia and Africa:

The correct answer is:

(A) The attackers also control South America

A bullet train travels in excess of 150 miles per hour. Therefore, if a train travels slower than 150miles per hour, it is not a bullet train. Which of the following most closely parallels the reasoning used in the argument above? 1 Mark(s) (A) An orange ripens only on the vine If it ripens on the vine, then it is not an orange (B) Newspapers are often read by more than one person. Therefore , magazines are also likely to be read by more than one person (C)An earthquake of 5.0 or above on Richter scale causes massive damage If there is not massive damage, then the earthquake did not attain a 5.0 or above (D) A supersonic plane travels at speeds in excess of Mach1 If it is not supersonic, the n it will travel at speeds below Mach 1 (E) Fluorides generally prevent cavities tf there are no cavities, then there were no fluorides used

 

The argument states:

• A bullet train travels in excess of 150 miles per hour.
• Therefore, if a train travels slower than 150 miles per hour, it is not a bullet train.

This reasoning can be summarized as:

• If something is a bullet train, then it travels faster than 150 miles per hour.
• If something does not travel faster than 150 miles per hour, then it is not a bullet train.

To find a parallel reasoning, we need an argument that uses a similar structure:

(A) An orange ripens only on the vine. If it ripens on the vine, then it is not an orange.

• This statement is incorrect because it incorrectly states the relationship; it should be the other way around.

(B) Newspapers are often read by more than one person. Therefore, magazines are also likely to be read by more than one person.

• This does not match the structure of the reasoning.

(C) An earthquake of 5.0 or above on the Richter scale causes massive damage. If there is not massive damage, then the earthquake did not attain a 5.0 or above.

• This matches the reasoning structure: If an earthquake causes massive damage, then it is 5.0 or above. If it does not cause massive damage, then it is not 5.0 or above.

(D) A supersonic plane travels at speeds in excess of Mach 1. If it is not supersonic, then it will travel at speeds below Mach 1.

• This matches the reasoning structure: If something is a supersonic plane, then it travels faster than Mach 1. If it does not travel faster than Mach 1, then it is not supersonic.

(E) Fluorides generally prevent cavities. If there are no cavities, then there were no fluorides used.

• This statement is incorrect because it incorrectly states the relationship; it should be the other way around.

The correct answer is:

(D) A supersonic plane travels at speeds in excess of Mach 1. If it is not supersonic, then it will travel at speeds below Mach 1.

An invasion of alien attackers is attempting to take control of the world. If the attackers can take control of Asia, they will then also control Europe. If they can control Europe, they will control Africa. They will not get control of South America unless they first control both Asia and Africa. If they control Asia, Africa, and South America, they will control North America. According to the above argument, which of the following statements can be concluded if the attackers control both Asia and Africa? 1Mark(s) G()The attackers also control south Amenica attackers control (8) The also North Amenica (C) The attackers also control Europe attackers not control (0) The America do South attackers do control (E) The America not North

 

Based on the argument, let’s analyze the conditions given:

1. If the attackers control Asia, they will also control Europe.
2. If they control Europe, they will control Africa.
3. They will not get control of South America unless they first control both Asia and Africa.
4. If they control Asia, Africa, and South America, they will control North America.

Given that the attackers control both Asia and Africa:

1. Since the attackers control Asia, they will also control Europe (from statement 1).
2. Since they control Europe, they will control Africa (from statement 2).
3. They will not get control of South America unless they control both Asia and Africa, which they do (from statement 3). So, they will control South America.
4. Since they control Asia, Africa, and South America, they will control North America (from statement 4).

From the above conclusions:

• (C) The attackers also control Europe — This is true.
• (A) The attackers also control South America — This is true.
• (B) The attackers also control North America — This is true.

Therefore, the correct answer based on the given options and the conclusions we can draw is:

(C) The attackers also control Europe.

A bullet train travels in excess of 150 miles per hour Therefore, if a train travels slower than 150miles per hour, it is not a bullet train. Which of the following most closely parallels the reasoning used in the argument above? 1 Mark(s) (A) An orange ripens only on the vine If it ripens on the vine, then it is not an orange (B) Newspapers are often read by more than one person Therefore, magazines are be one also likely to read by more than person (C)An earthquake of 5.0 or above on Richter scale causes massive damage_If ther e (D) A supersonic plane travels at speeds in excess of Mach 1 f it is not supersonic, is not massive damage, then the earthquake did not attain a 5.0 or above then it will travel at speeds below Mach 1 (E) Fluorides generally prevent cavities ff there are no cavities, then there were no fluorides used

 

To determine which statement parallels the reasoning in the argument, let’s break down the reasoning used in the original argument:

Original Argument:

• A bullet train travels in excess of 150 miles per hour.
• Therefore, if a train travels slower than 150 miles per hour, it is not a bullet train.

The reasoning is:

1. A bullet train has a specific characteristic (traveling in excess of 150 miles per hour).
2. If something does not have this characteristic (travels slower than 150 miles per hour), it cannot be a bullet train.

This reasoning follows a logical form where the presence of a specific characteristic (exceeding 150 miles per hour) determines membership in a category (bullet train), and the absence of that characteristic means it is not in that category.

Now, let’s analyze the options:

(A) An orange ripens only on the vine. If it ripens on the vine, then it is not an orange.

• This is incorrect because it contradicts the statement. If an orange ripens on the vine, it is still an orange.

(B) Newspapers are often read by more than one person. Therefore, magazines are also likely to be read by more than one person.

• This does not parallel the reasoning as it is a generalization rather than a specific characteristic determining category membership.

(C) An earthquake of 5.0 or above on the Richter scale causes massive damage. If there is no massive damage, then the earthquake did not attain a 5.0 or above.

• This parallels the reasoning because it uses the characteristic (massive damage) to determine if the earthquake meets a specific threshold (5.0 or above).

(D) A supersonic plane travels at speeds in excess of Mach 1. If it is not supersonic, then it will travel at speeds below Mach 1.

• This also parallels the reasoning because it uses the characteristic (speed above Mach 1) to determine if something is supersonic.

(E) Fluorides generally prevent cavities. If there are no cavities, then there were no fluorides used.

• This reasoning does not parallel the original because it assumes a cause-and-effect relationship rather than characteristic-based categorization.

Conclusion: Both (C) and (D) are valid parallels to the original reasoning. However, (D) closely matches the logical structure of the original argument.

Therefore, the best choice is:

(D) A supersonic plane travels at speeds in excess of Mach 1. If it is not supersonic, then it will travel at speeds below Mach 1.

If Yahaya arrives in Ghana today, she will bring me a car. If Yahaya brings me a car, then I will rent a flat. If I rent a flat, I will marry the girl I want, if I marry the girl I want then I will make children with her. If I make children with her, I will make a big farm. I have not made any children yet. so, which of the following can be logically concluded? 1 Mark(s) (A) Yahaya did not arrive in Ghana today (8) Yahaya did not buy me a car (C) I did not rent a flat (0) 4 did not marry the girt t wanted (E)I did not make any big farm

 

To solve this, let’s analyze the given statements and their logical connections:

1. If Yahaya arrives in Ghana today, she will bring me a car.
2. If Yahaya brings me a car, then I will rent a flat.
3. If I rent a flat, I will marry the girl I want.
4. If I marry the girl I want, then I will make children with her.
5. If I make children with her, I will make a big farm.

You are given that “I have not made any children yet.”

To find the logical conclusion:

• Since you have not made any children, according to statement 4, you have not married the girl you want.
• If you have not married the girl you want, then you did not rent a flat, based on statement 3.
• If you did not rent a flat, then Yahaya did not bring you a car, based on statement 2.
• If Yahaya did not bring you a car, then Yahaya did not arrive in Ghana today, based on statement 1.

Thus, the final conclusion is:

(A) Yahaya did not arrive in Ghana today.

Number or letter series In this task, you are to determine the number that must be inserted into the sequence to complete the series. You first have to establish the rule that was used to create the series and then apply this rule to complete the series correctly. (e.g. 1. 6,1 O, 15, 21,28,e.g. 2. 90, 69, 49, 30. Which of the following responses completes the series below? 13, 19, 25, 31, 43, 55, 67, 79, 89, 99, 1Mark(s) ; (a) 111 109 (b) 110 (c) () 112 113 (e)

 

To determine the next number in the series, first identify the pattern or rule used to create the series:

Series: 13, 19, 25, 31, 43, 55, 67, 79, 89, 99

Step 1: Analyze the differences between consecutive numbers:

• 19−13=619 – 13 = 619−13=6
• 25−19=625 – 19 = 625−19=6
• 31−25=631 – 25 = 631−25=6
• 43−31=1243 – 31 = 1243−31=12
• 55−43=1255 – 43 = 1255−43=12
• 67−55=1267 – 55 = 1267−55=12
• 79−67=1279 – 67 = 1279−67=12
• 89−79=1089 – 79 = 1089−79=10
• 99−89=1099 – 89 = 1099−89=10

Step 2: Identify the pattern in differences:

• The first three differences are 6.
• The next four differences are 12.
• The last two differences are 10.

It appears that the differences increase in a pattern of 666, 121212, 101010 (repeating 101010).

Step 3: Apply the identified pattern to predict the next number:

The last difference was 101010, and if the pattern continues with 101010 as the difference:

• The next number after 999999 (using a difference of 101010) is 99+10=10999 + 10 = 10999+10=109.

So, the number that completes the series is:

(b) 109

12-year-old Everard is three times as old as his brother Rashid. How old will Everard be when he is twice as old as Rashid? (A) 14 years (B) 16 years (0) 18 years (D) 20 years

 

Let’s solve the problem step by step:

1. Current ages:
   • Everard is 12 years old.
   • Everard is three times as old as Rashid.

Let Rashid’s current age be RRR. Therefore, we have:

12=3R  ⟹  R=123=412 = 3R \implies R = \frac{12}{3} = 412=3R⟹R=312​=4

So, Rashid is currently 4 years old.

1. Future ages:
   • We need to find when Everard will be twice as old as Rashid.

Let xxx be the number of years in the future when Everard will be twice as old as Rashid. At that time:

1. • Everard’s age will be 12+x12 + x12+x
   • Rashid’s age will be 4+x4 + x4+x

We need:

12+x=2×(4+x)12 + x = 2 \times (4 + x)12+x=2×(4+x)

Solving this equation:

12+x=8+2×12 + x = 8 + 2×12+x=8+2x 12−8=2x−x12 – 8 = 2x – x12−8=2x−x 4=x4 = x4=x

1. Future ages calculation:
   • When x=4x = 4x=4:
     • Everard’s age will be 12+4=1612 + 4 = 1612+4=16
     • Rashid’s age will be 4+4=84 + 4 = 84+4=8

Thus, Everard will be 16 years old when he is twice as old as Rashid.

Answer: (B) 16 years

The move to shift the fiscal obligation to provide community services away from the Central government to the local communities is welcomed by its proponents as a step forward on the road to true democracy. They claim that by making communities responsible for funding everything from health, welfare and education to the emergency services and housing, not only will improve these services but also foster a greater sense of community. However, such a move would mean that densely-populated areas, having a greater tax base, would be better off, and sparsely-populated, rural communities would still be dependent on supplemental subsidies from Central sources. In the given argument, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? 1Mark(s) (A) The first is a claim that the author calls in question, and the second is a claim that (8) The first is a claim that the author endorses, and the second is a claim that the goes against the first author calls in question (C) The first is a counter-evidence to the second, and the second is the proponents (D) The first is the authors claim, and the second is the proponents’ funding that puts prediction. the frst questionable (£) The first is a prediction that the author elaborates further, and the second is the objection that the argument nullifies

 

In the given argument:

• The first boldface portion is: “The move to shift the fiscal obligation to provide community services away from the Central government to the local communities is welcomed by its proponents as a step forward on the road to true democracy.”
• The second boldface portion is: “However, such a move would mean that densely-populated areas, having a greater tax base, would be better off, and sparsely-populated, rural communities would still be dependent on supplemental subsidies from Central sources.”

Here’s the role each portion plays:

1. The first boldface portion outlines a claim made by the proponents of the policy: that decentralizing fiscal obligations is a positive step towards true democracy and will improve community services and foster a greater sense of community.
2. The second boldface portion challenges the first claim by presenting a potential problem with the proposed shift: that it could lead to disparities between densely-populated and sparsely-populated areas, with the latter still needing central subsidies.

Thus:

• The first boldface portion is a claim endorsed by the proponents.
• The second boldface portion counters this claim by highlighting a potential issue with the proposal.

So, the correct answer is:

(B) The first is a claim that the author endorses, and the second is a claim that the author calls in question.

Toughened hiring standards have not been the primary cause of the present staffing shortage in public schools. The shortage of teachers is primarily caused by the fact that in recent years, teachers have not experienced any improvements in working conditions and their salaries have not kept pace with salaries in other professions. Which of the following, if true, would most support the claims above? 1Mark(s) (A) Many teachers already in the profession would not have been hired under the new hiring standards (8) Today more teachers are entering the profession with a higher educational level than in the past (C) Some teachers have cited higher standards for hiring as a reason for the current staffing shortage (D) Many teachers have cited low pay and lack of professional freedom as reasons for their leaving the profession (£)Many prospective teachers have cited the new hiring standards as a reason tot not entering the profession

 

To support the claims that toughened hiring standards are not the primary cause of the current staffing shortage in public schools and that the shortage is mainly due to poor working conditions and stagnant salaries, you need evidence that highlights the actual reasons why teachers are leaving or not entering the profession.

Among the provided options:

• (A) Many teachers already in the profession would not have been hired under the new hiring standards: This does not directly address the reasons for the current staffing shortage but rather discusses the impact of new standards on existing teachers.
• (B) Today more teachers are entering the profession with a higher educational level than in the past: This does not directly support the claim about staffing shortages due to working conditions or salaries.
• (C) Some teachers have cited higher standards for hiring as a reason for the current staffing shortage: This supports the idea that hiring standards might be a reason for the shortage, but the argument claims they are not the primary cause.
• (D) Many teachers have cited low pay and lack of professional freedom as reasons for their leaving the profession: This supports the claim by providing evidence that low pay and poor working conditions are significant factors contributing to the staffing shortage.
• (E) Many prospective teachers have cited the new hiring standards as a reason for not entering the profession: This supports the idea that hiring standards impact entry into the profession, but it does not address the primary cause of the current staffing shortage.

Therefore, the best choice to support the claim is:

(D) Many teachers have cited low pay and lack of professional freedom as reasons for their leaving the profession.

A recent survey of its members conducted by a large insurance company produced some interesting results. The survey was designed to gather information from its members regarding what their main criteria were for choosing to invest in residential property. The vast majority rated the ‘Returns profile as their main priority, closely followed by ‘Development potential’ and ‘Stability of income! It came as no surprise to find out that ‘Portfolio legacy’ was ranked at the bottom of the list by contributors. It was also interesting to note that respondents this year were less likely to have residential holdings that formed part of mixed-use assets, i.e. as an add-on to commercial investment. One might assume from this that more investors are proactively investing in residential real estate rather than having an incidental exposure via existing business investments. Uncovering longer term intentions were also part of the survey remit and it transpired that approximately one third of contributors expected their residential investment exposure to remain stable over the next 12 months. The vast majority intend to increase their investment in the same period with only a few stating that they intended to reduce it in the same period. ‘Financial proceeds’ is or means the same as ‘returns profile’ 1Mark(s) A. False 8 True c. Cannot Tell D Somewhat true and False

 

To determine if “financial proceeds” means the same as “returns profile,” consider the following:

• Returns Profile: Typically refers to the expected or historical performance of an investment, including returns and profitability.
• Financial Proceeds: Refers to the actual money received from an investment or sale.

Given this, “returns profile” focuses on the projected or past performance of an investment, while “financial proceeds” refers to the actual funds received. Although they are related (as better returns might lead to higher financial proceeds), they are not the same.

Therefore:

1. False

The rise of obesity among citizens of country Y has been linked to a variety of health problems. In response to this situation, the country’s largest health organization has called for food manufacturers to help combat the problem. Since the leading members of the nation’s food industry have agreed to provide healthier alternatives, reduce sugar and fat content and reduce advertisements for unhealthy foods, it is likely that country Y will experience a decrease in obesity-related health problems. Which of the following is properly considered as the premise upon which country Y will experience a decrease in obesity-related health problems? 1Mark(s) (A) An increase in obesity among citizens of country Y is linked to various health diseases (8) The leading members of the nation’s food industry have agreed to prov ide healthier alternatives, reduce sugar and fat content and reduce advertisements for unhealthy foods (C) A call from the country’s largest health organization for food manufacturers to help remedy the situation (D) The health organization s are busily researching for an appropriate remedy (E) Advertisements for unhealthy foods have been reduced

 

To identify the premise upon which it is believed that country Y will experience a decrease in obesity-related health problems, let’s examine each option:

• (A) An increase in obesity among citizens of country Y is linked to various health diseases: This statement is related to the consequence but not the premise for the decrease in health problems.
• (B) The leading members of the nation’s food industry have agreed to provide healthier alternatives, reduce sugar and fat content, and reduce advertisements for unhealthy foods: This is the premise that supports the belief that obesity-related health problems will decrease, as it directly addresses the actions being taken to combat obesity.
• (C) A call from the country’s largest health organization for food manufacturers to help remedy the situation: This is an action that prompted the changes but not the premise supporting the decrease in health problems.
• (D) The health organizations are busily researching for an appropriate remedy: This is related to ongoing efforts but not directly supporting the expected outcome of a decrease in health problems.
• (E) Advertisements for unhealthy foods have been reduced: This is a result of the actions taken but not the primary premise supporting the decrease in obesity-related health problems.

The correct answer is:

(B) The leading members of the nation’s food industry have agreed to provide healthier alternatives, reduce sugar and fat content, and reduce advertisements for unhealthy foods.

Our advertising solutions proved to be very successful. In the past years, each of our three clients experienced the fastest growth of sales in their history. Therefore, if your company wants to increase sales, do not hesitate to call Global Media Alliance, since we are the best solution in the market. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the speakers’ argument? 1Mark(s) (A) Most of the consultants at Global Media Alliance hold advertising degrees (B) Even without the help of Global Media Alliance, the three clients of Global Media Alliance will achieve the same growth rate in sales (C) Global Media Alliance is one of the three leading advertising solutions companies (D) Global Media Alliance uses an updated approach in advertis ing that helps companies to improve brand visibility (E) All of the three clients of Global Media Alliance are doing business in services sector

 

To identify which statement most seriously weakens the argument that Global Media Alliance is the best solution for increasing sales, let’s analyze each option:

• (A) Most of the consultants at Global Media Alliance hold advertising degrees: This fact may indicate that the team is well-qualified but does not directly address the effectiveness of their advertising solutions or the uniqueness of their success.
• (B) Even without the help of Global Media Alliance, the three clients of Global Media Alliance will achieve the same growth rate in sales: This statement weakens the argument by suggesting that the clients’ success is not necessarily due to Global Media Alliance’s services, implying that their growth could have occurred regardless of the company’s involvement.
• (C) Global Media Alliance is one of the three leading advertising solutions companies: While this indicates that Global Media Alliance is among top companies, it does not directly weaken the argument about their specific success or effectiveness.
• (D) Global Media Alliance uses an updated approach in advertising that helps companies to improve brand visibility: This statement supports the effectiveness of Global Media Alliance rather than weakening the argument.
• (E) All of the three clients of Global Media Alliance are doing business in the services sector: This could suggest that the success may be sector-specific but does not directly challenge the effectiveness of Global Media Alliance’s solutions overall.

The statement that most seriously weakens the argument is:

(B) Even without the help of Global Media Alliance, the three clients of Global Media Alliance will achieve the same growth rate in sales.

Number or letter series In this task, you are to determine the number or letter that must be inserted into the sequence to complete the series. You first have to establish the rule that was used to create the series and then apply this rule to complete the series correctly. Note that a double letter (e.g., AA) indicates that a letter series is continuing from the beginning of the alphabet after reaching Z (as in the following:X,Y, Z, AA, BB, cc.) Which of the following responses completes the series? J,N, R, V, BB, FF JJ, NN, RR, __ 1 Mark(s) (a) Y (b)vv (c) XX (d) LIU (e) ss

 

To determine the pattern in the given series: J, N, R, V, BB, FF, JJ, NN, RR, __, let’s break it down:

1. Initial Analysis of the Series:
   • J, N, R, V: These are letters in a specific pattern.
   • BB, FF, JJ, NN, RR: These are double letters indicating a continuation of the pattern after reaching the end of the single letters.
2. Identify the Pattern:
   • The single letters J, N, R, V show a pattern of skipping 4 letters each time:
     • J (10th letter)
     • N (14th letter, +4 from J)
     • R (18th letter, +4 from N)
     • V (22nd letter, +4 from R)
3. Identify the Pattern in Double Letters:
   • BB, FF, JJ, NN, RR
   • BB is followed by FF (which follows the same skipping pattern: B + 4 = F)
   • FF + 4 letters = JJ
   • JJ + 4 letters = NN
   • NN + 4 letters = RR
4. Next in the Sequence:
   • Following RR, skip 4 letters to find the next double letters:
     • RR (18th letter repeated twice) + 4 letters = VV (22nd letter repeated twice)

Therefore, the next in the series after RR is VV.

The correct answer is:

(b) VV

It takes 12 people 15 hours to complete a certain job. How many hours would it take 18 people, working at the same rate to complete 2/5 of the same job? 1Mark(s) (A) 31/2 (B) 4 (0)9 (D) 16 1/2 (E) 22 1/2

 

To solve this problem, we need to determine how many hours it would take for 18 people to complete 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the same job, given that 12 people can complete the entire job in 15 hours.

1. Calculate the total work required:
   • 12 people can complete the entire job in 15 hours. Thus, the total work in person-hours is: Total work=12 people×15 hours=180 person-hours\text{Total work} = 12 \text{ people} \times 15 \text{ hours} = 180 \text{ person-hours}Total work=12 people×15 hours=180 person-hours
2. Determine the amount of work for 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the job:
   • The work required to complete 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the job is: Work required=25×180 person-hours=72 person-hours\text{Work required} = \frac{2}{5} \times 180 \text{ person-hours} = 72 \text{ person-hours}Work required=52​×180 person-hours=72 person-hours
3. Calculate the time required for 18 people to complete this amount of work:
   • Let TTT be the time required for 18 people to complete 72 person-hours of work. The equation is: 18 people×T hours=72 person-hours18 \text{ people} \times T \text{ hours} = 72 \text{ person-hours}18 people×T hours=72 person-hours
   • Solving for TTT: T=7218=4 hoursT = \frac{72}{18} = 4 \text{ hours}T=1872​=4 hours

Thus, it would take 18 people 4 hours to complete 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the job.

The correct answer is:

(B) 4

About seven hundred and fifty (750) marketing professionals attended this year’s Media Innovations Forum. This indicates that social media engagement is a substantial feature of brand marketing plans. Proposed Assumption: The extent of attendance in Service professional media forums is not negligible. 1Mark(s) (A) Assumption Made (8) Assumption Not Made (C) Assumption Partially made (0) Somewhat false the (E) None of above

 

The proposed assumption is:

“The extent of attendance in service professional media forums is not negligible.”

To evaluate this assumption:

1. Current Statement: The statement mentions that 750 marketing professionals attended the Media Innovations Forum, and it suggests that social media engagement is a significant part of brand marketing.
2. Proposed Assumption: The assumption suggests that attendance in media forums, in general, is significant, which would support the implication that a large attendance indicates importance in the field.

Given the information, the assumption is being made to support the idea that a large attendance at one such forum (Media Innovations Forum) indicates the importance of social media engagement in brand marketing, suggesting that the extent of attendance at similar professional forums is also noteworthy.

Therefore, the assumption is made to support the conclusion.

The correct answer is:

(A) Assumption Made

A recent survey of its members conducted by a large insurance company produced some interesting results. The survey was designed to gather information from its members regarding what their main criteria were for choosing to invest in residential property. The vast majority rated the ‘Returns profile as their main priority, closely followed by ‘Development potential’ and ‘Stability of income! It came as no surprise to find out that ‘Portfolio legacy’ was ranked at the bottom of the list by contributors. It was also interesting to note that respondents this year were less likely to have residential holdings that formed part of mixed-use assets, Le. as an add-on to commercial investment. One might assume from this that more investors are proactively investing in residential real estate rather than having an incidental exposure via existing business investments. Uncovering longer term intentions were also part of the survey remit and it transpired that approximately one third of contributors expected their residential investment exposure to remain stable over the next 12 months. The vast majority intend to increase their investment in the same period with only a few stating that they intended to reduce it in the same period. Business owners who have commercial premises often tend to have a residential property as part of their portfolio. 1Mark(s) (A) Tru e (B) To acertain Degree (C) False (D) Cannot Tell

 

The statement “Business owners who have commercial premises often tend to have a residential property as part of their portfolio” is an observation based on the information provided.

The survey indicates that respondents are less likely to have residential holdings as part of mixed-use assets (i.e., residential as an add-on to commercial investment). This suggests that there is a trend of investors being more focused on proactive residential investments rather than incidental ones tied to commercial assets.

Given this trend, the statement that business owners with commercial premises often have residential property as part of their portfolio seems to be contradicted by the survey findings. The trend indicates a move away from mixed-use investments.

Therefore, the statement is:

(C) False

John budgeted 50% of his take-home pay for household expenses, 20% for transportation, 15% for retirement and the remaining 240 for recreation. How much of his take-home pay did he budget for household expenses? 1 Mark(s) A GHC50O 8 GHC80OO C GH1,0OO 0 GHC1,20O E GHC24O

 

To determine how much John budgeted for household expenses, we need to first calculate the total amount of his take-home pay based on the information given:

1. Calculate the total take-home pay:
   • Household expenses: 50%
   • Transportation: 20%
   • Retirement: 15%
   • Recreation: Remaining 240

The total percentage of the budget is:

50%+20%+15%=85%50\% + 20\% + 15\% = 85\%50%+20%+15%=85%

Therefore, the remaining percentage for recreation is:

100%−85%=15%100\% – 85\% = 15\%100%−85%=15%

According to the information, 15% of his take-home pay equals 240. We can use this to find the total take-home pay:

Let xxx be the total take-home pay. Then:

0.15x=2400.15x = 2400.15x=240

Solving for xxx:

x=2400.15=1600x = \frac{240}{0.15} = 1600x=0.15240​=1600

1. Calculate the budget for household expenses:

Household expenses are 50% of the total take-home pay:

Household expenses=0.50×1600=800\text{Household expenses} = 0.50 \times 1600 = 800Household expenses=0.50×1600=800

So, John budgeted GHC 800 for household expenses.

Answer:

(B) GHC 800

study the pattern analyzed in the coding given and answer the questions against it. one word is coded according to a particular pattern and the candidate is asked to give the code letters for another word following the same pattern of coding. In a certain coding system TRAIN is written as GIZRM, how will you code FIGURE? 1 Mark(s) * (A) USTGKV (8) VIYXTC (C) URTF (0) VKGTSV

 

To decode the pattern used in the given coding system, let’s analyze how the word “TRAIN” is transformed into “GIZRM”:

1. Determine the position of each letter in the alphabet:
   • T = 20
   • R = 18
   • A = 1
   • I = 9
   • N = 14
   • G = 7
   • I = 9
   • Z = 26
   • R = 18
   • M = 13
2. Analyze the shift for each letter:
   • T (20) → G (7) : Shift = 7 – 20 = -13
   • R (18) → I (9) : Shift = 9 – 18 = -9
   • A (1) → Z (26) : Shift = 26 – 1 = 25 (or -1)
   • I (9) → R (18) : Shift = 18 – 9 = 9
   • N (14) → M (13) : Shift = 13 – 14 = -1

The shifts are: -13, -9, +25, +9, -1

1. Apply the same pattern to “FIGURE”:
   • F = 6
   • I = 9
   • G = 7
   • U = 21
   • R = 18
   • E = 5

Using the shifts calculated:

1. • For F (6), apply a shift of -13:

6−13=−7 (or 26−7=19, which is S)6 – 13 = -7 \text{ (or } 26 – 7 = 19 \text{, which is S)}6−13=−7 (or 26−7=19, which is S)

1. • For I (9), apply a shift of -9:

9−9=0 (or 26, which is Z)9 – 9 = 0 \text{ (or } 26 \text{, which is Z)}9−9=0 (or 26, which is Z)

1. • For G (7), apply a shift of +25:

7+25=32 (or 32−26=6, which is F)7 + 25 = 32 \text{ (or } 32 – 26 = 6 \text{, which is F)}7+25=32 (or 32−26=6, which is F)

1. • For U (21), apply a shift of +9:

21+9=30 (or 30−26=4, which is D)21 + 9 = 30 \text{ (or } 30 – 26 = 4 \text{, which is D)}21+9=30 (or 30−26=4, which is D)

1. • For R (18), apply a shift of -1:

18−1=17 (which is Q)18 – 1 = 17 \text{ (which is Q)}18−1=17 (which is Q)

1. • For E (5), apply a shift of -13:

5−13=−8 (or 26−8=18, which is R)5 – 13 = -8 \text{ (or } 26 – 8 = 18 \text{, which is R)}5−13=−8 (or 26−8=18, which is R)

So, the coded word for “FIGURE” following the same pattern is “SZFDQR.”

Given the choices, none match the pattern perfectly, but based on closest resemblance, the best fit for the pattern is:

Answer: (A) USTGKV

Retailer groups opposed to Visa and MasterCard’s GHC7.25 billion settlement of a lawsuit over merchant credit card fees said they have garnered support from about 1,200 businesses covered by the deal. These groups urged a judge in Takoradi not to grant initial approval to the settlement, however, the ruling will probably be in its favour. That could end seven years of litigation over an alleged conspiracy by the card companies and banks to fnx the fees that retailers are charged when customers pay with cards. The judge thinks that a conspiracy between the credit card companies has not occurred. Which of the following is a reflection of the statement above? 1 Mark(s) (A) True (8) Probably False (C) Probably True (D) Insufficient Data (E) False

 

The statement says that the judge will probably rule in favor of the settlement and implies that the judge thinks a conspiracy between the credit card companies has not occurred. Based on this information, the reflection of the statement about whether the judge believes a conspiracy occurred would be:

• Probably False: Since the judge is likely to rule in favor of the settlement, it suggests that the judge might not believe in the alleged conspiracy.

So, the best answer reflecting this is:

(B) Probably False

If the Silver Flyer, a train going to Chicago, leaves Philadelphia on time, then it will arrive in Chicago on time. If the train arrives in Chicago on time, then it always arrives in Los Angeles on time. Last Tuesday, the Silver Flyer arrived late in Chicago. Which of the following is a valid conclusion based on the above statements? 1 Mark(s) A. The Silver Flyer did not leave Philadelphia on time B. The Silver Flyer was late leaving Chicago on its way to Los Angeles C The Silver Flyer arrived in Los Angeles on time D The Silver Flyer arrived late in Los Angeles E The Silver flyer had mechanical problems during the trip from Philadelphia to Chicago

 

Given the statements:

1. If the Silver Flyer leaves Philadelphia on time, it will arrive in Chicago on time.
2. If the train arrives in Chicago on time, it always arrives in Los Angeles on time.
3. The Silver Flyer arrived late in Chicago.

Based on these statements, we can derive the following:

• Since the Silver Flyer arrived late in Chicago, it did not meet the condition needed for the second statement to hold (i.e., it did not arrive in Chicago on time).
• Because the train did not arrive in Chicago on time, the condition for arriving in Los Angeles on time (based on the second statement) was not met.

Therefore, the valid conclusion is:

1. The Silver Flyer arrived late in Los Angeles.

Even though most universities retain the royalties from faculty members’ inventions, the faculty members retain the royalties from books and articles they write. Therefore, faculty members should retain the royalties from the educational computer software they develop. The conclusion above would be more reasonably drawn if which of the following were inserted into the argument as an additional premise? 1 Mark(s) (A) Royalties from inventions are higher than royalties from educational software programs (8) Faculty members are more likely to produce educational software programs than inventions (C) inventions bring more prestige to universities than do books and articles (D) in the experience of most universities, educational software programs are more marketable than are books and articles (£)in terms of the criteria used to award royalties, educational software programs are more nearly comparable to books and articles than to inventions

 

The argument concludes that faculty members should retain the royalties from educational computer software they develop, similar to how they retain royalties from books and articles. To strengthen this conclusion, an additional premise should connect educational software to the same category as books and articles, rather than to inventions.

The most reasonable additional premise to support this conclusion is:

(E) In terms of the criteria used to award royalties, educational software programs are more nearly comparable to books and articles than to inventions.

This premise provides a basis for treating educational software similarly to books and articles, aligning the reasoning with the conclusion.

A telephone poll conducted into two states asked respondents whether their homes were cold during the winter months. 99% of respondents said their houses were always warm during the winter. The Pollsters published their findings, concluding that 99% of all homes in the United states have adequate heating Which of the following most accurately describes a questionable technique employed by the pollsters in drawing their conclusion? 1 Mark(s) % The poll wrongly ascribes the underlying causes of the problem b The poll assumes conditions in two states are representative of the entire country ¢ The pollsters conducted the poll by telephone, thereby relying on the veracity of d The pollsters didn’t visit respondents’ houses in person, so no measure of the respondents subject’s home was actually made e. The pollsters never defined the term cold in terms of a specific temperature

 

The most accurate description of a questionable technique used by the pollsters is:

(B) The poll assumes conditions in two states are representative of the entire country

The pollsters conducted their survey in only two states and then generalized the findings to all homes in the United States. This assumption is problematic because the sample may not be representative of the entire country.

It takes 10 people16 hours to complete a certain job. How many hours would it take 8 people, working at the same rate, to complete % of the job? 1 Mark(s) A. 12 (8) 12 4/5 c.15 E. 20

 

To solve the problem, we need to use the concept of work done and time. Here’s how you can determine how many hours it will take for 8 people to complete 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the job:

1. Calculate the total amount of work in person-hours:

If 10 people can complete the job in 16 hours, then the total amount of work required is:

Total Work=10 people×16 hours=160 person-hours\text{Total Work} = 10 \text{ people} \times 16 \text{ hours} = 160 \text{ person-hours}Total Work=10 people×16 hours=160 person-hours

1. Calculate the amount of work for 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the job:

Work for 25 of the job=25×160 person-hours=64 person-hours\text{Work for } \frac{2}{5} \text{ of the job} = \frac{2}{5} \times 160 \text{ person-hours} = 64 \text{ person-hours}Work for 52​ of the job=52​×160 person-hours=64 person-hours

1. Determine how long it will take for 8 people to complete 64 person-hours of work:

Time=Total Work RequiredNumber of People=64 person-hours8 people=8 hours\text{Time} = \frac{\text{Total Work Required}}{\text{Number of People}} = \frac{64 \text{ person-hours}}{8 \text{ people}} = 8 \text{ hours}Time=Number of PeopleTotal Work Required​=8 people64 person-hours​=8 hours

So, it will take 8 people 8 hours to complete 25\frac{2}{5}52​ of the job.

Since none of the provided options exactly match this result, it’s likely there’s a mistake in the options. However, based on the standard method, the answer is 8 hours.

Most people believe that gold and platinum are the most valuable commodities, to the true entrepreneur, however, gold and platinum are less valuable than is the knowledge of opportunities. Thus, in the world of high finance, information is the most valuable commodity. The author of the passage above makes which of the following assumptions? 1 Mark(s) a Gold and platinum are no the most valuable commodities b Entrepreneurs are not like most people c. The value of information is incalculably high d information about business opportunities is accurate and leads to increased wealth feel e Only entrepreneurs that information is the most valuable commodity

 

The author of the passage assumes that information about business opportunities is not only valuable but also significantly more valuable than physical commodities like gold and platinum. This assumption implies that:

• The knowledge of opportunities is more crucial and impactful in high finance compared to physical commodities.
• Accurate and actionable information about business opportunities can lead to increased wealth.

Given this context, the most accurate assumption made by the author is:

1. Information about business opportunities is accurate and leads to increased wealth.

This option aligns with the idea that having valuable information (knowledge of opportunities) is crucial for entrepreneurs, implying it is effective in creating wealth.

In Asia, where palm trees are non-native, the trees’ flowers have traditionally been pollinated by hand, which has kept palm fruit productivity unnaturally low. When weevils known to be efficient pollinators of palm flowers were introduced into Asia in 1980, palm fruit productivity increased-by up to fifty percent in some areas-but then decreased sharply in 1984. Which of the following statements, if true, would best explain the 1984 decrease in productivity? 1Mark(s) A Prices for palm fruit fell between 1980 and 1984 following the rise in production 8 Imported trees are often more productive than native trees because the imported and a concurrent fall in demand ones have left beh ind their pests and diseases in their native lands C Rapid increases in productivity tend to deplete trees of nutrients needed for the p The weevil population in Asia remained at approximately the same level between development of the fruit-producing female flowers 1980 and 1984 E Prior to 1980 another species of insect pollinated the Asian palm trees, but not as efficiently as the species of weevil that was introduced in 1980

 

To explain the sharp decrease in palm fruit productivity in 1984, a key factor would need to account for the sudden decline in productivity after a period of increased productivity due to the introduction of weevils as pollinators.

The most plausible explanation is related to the health or effectiveness of the pollinators. The statement that best explains the decrease in productivity is:

1984. The weevil population in Asia remained at approximately the same level between 1980 and 1984.

If the weevil population remained stable but productivity decreased, it suggests that factors other than the number of weevils might have affected productivity. This could imply issues like weevil effectiveness, disease, or environmental changes that impacted the productivity of palm trees despite the presence of weevils.

Cyril has six more than twice as many mangoes as Kubie and half as many mangoes as Maxine. If Kubie has six mangoes, then, in terms of x, how many mangoes do Cyril, Kubie, and Maxine have combined? 1 Mark(s) (a) 2x+9 (b) 2x+6 (c) 4x+9 (d) 2x+6 (e) 7x+18

 

To solve this problem, let’s define the number of mangoes each person has:

1. Kubie: We know Kubie has 6 mangoes.
2. Cyril: Cyril has 6 more than twice as many mangoes as Kubie. So, Cyril has:

Cyril’s mangoes=2×6+6=12+6=18\text{Cyril’s mangoes} = 2 \times 6 + 6 = 12 + 6 = 18Cyril’s mangoes=2×6+6=12+6=18

1. Maxine: Cyril has half as many mangoes as Maxine. Therefore, Maxine has twice as many mangoes as Cyril:

Maxine’s mangoes=2×18=36\text{Maxine’s mangoes} = 2 \times 18 = 36Maxine’s mangoes=2×18=36

Combining the number of mangoes for Cyril, Kubie, and Maxine:

Total mangoes=Cyril’s mangoes+Kubie’s mangoes+Maxine’s mangoes=18+6+36=60\text{Total mangoes} = \text{Cyril’s mangoes} + \text{Kubie’s mangoes} + \text{Maxine’s mangoes} = 18 + 6 + 36 = 60Total mangoes=Cyril’s mangoes+Kubie’s mangoes+Maxine’s mangoes=18+6+36=60

In terms of xxx, if we let xxx be the number of mangoes Kubie has (which is 6), then:

Cyril’s mangoes=2x+6 (because x=6, so Cyril’s mangoes are 2×6+6=18)\text{Cyril’s mangoes} = 2x + 6 \text{ (because } x = 6 \text{, so Cyril’s mangoes are } 2 \times 6 + 6 = 18\text{)}Cyril’s mangoes=2x+6 (because x=6, so Cyril’s mangoes are 2×6+6=18) Maxine’s mangoes=2×Cyril’s mangoes=2×(2x+6)=4x+12\text{Maxine’s mangoes} = 2 \times \text{Cyril’s mangoes} = 2 \times (2x + 6) = 4x + 12Maxine’s mangoes=2×Cyril’s mangoes=2×(2x+6)=4x+12

Adding them up:

Total mangoes=(2x+6)+x+(4x+12)=7x+18\text{Total mangoes} = (2x + 6) + x + (4x + 12) = 7x + 18Total mangoes=(2x+6)+x+(4x+12)=7x+18

So the correct answer is:

(e) 7x + 18

 

Conclusion

Cracking the Ghana Civil Service exam requires dedication and the right preparation. By following these tips and practicing regularly, you can increase your chances of success. Remember, understanding the exam pattern and practicing with sample questions is crucial.

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